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thanks for your answer. I understand that eq. (1) is supposed to be a projection. I’m pretty sure that, if psi(x,x’) is really a multitime wave-function, the expression, as it stands, is not correct. But I’m mostly concerned about the fact that “after an interaction has occured” or “two wave-functions have ceased interacting” is ambiguous in a relativistic setting. That’s why I think it’s important to be precise about these things, to make sure that the relevant expressions are actually well-defined and Lorentz-invariant.
I don’t want to get caught up in equation (1), though. There are several points in the model where I’m not sure if I just don’t understand the mathematical formulation, or if the notation is actually deceptive in that it sweeps serious problems under the rug.
Anyway, I’m happy to discuss this in more detail. You can email me at: [email protected] . Or, I just get in touch with you.