Reply To: Retrocausality is intrinsic to quantum mechanics

#2844

Thanks Daniel — Yes, I saw (and read with interest!) your earlier comments above. It seemed (from what you wrote in #2791) that you were still thinking of the argument as really strongly suggesting (if not quite rigorously proving) that there is retro-causation, but then also reconsidering this. I didn’t really have anything to say in response to that. Then in #2828 it seemed like you remained somewhat conflicted… on the one hand you were saying that the strength of your argument lies in the fact that it’s not tied to any particular interpretation, but on the other hand you acknowledge that the argument doesn’t actually prove retro-causation. I guess I just meant to be continuing to prod the part of you that still feels like the argument does show/suggest/whatever retro-causation in some interpretation-neutral sense. I just don’t think that’s right. I think you get to that conclusion basically by making various assumptions (something along the lines of locality, something along the lines of no hidden variables, etc.) that I would consider anything but interpretation-neutral.

But in so far as at least part of you acknowledges that, while this scenario *could* certainly be explained using retro-causation, it could also be perfectly well explained without any retro-causation, I’m happy and have nothing further to add. =)

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